I don’t think many people outside the financial business in some form have heard this term, but it is in effect the way in which the Federal Reserve signals their intentions with regard to monetary policy. Concretely, it is the rate set by the market for banks with excess capital to loan to banks that have come up short at midnight, so they can balance their books.
Presumably, an hour or two after the bank closes, they know how much money was taken out, how much is needed to meet either reserve requirements, or simply to stay in the black–much of this is I think somewhat intentionally shrouded in mystery–and thus how far they fall short. Presumably, there is some sort of “exchange” provided by the Fed, whereby the big banks signal they have money to lend, and other banks signal they need money. The whole thing presumably happens electronically and instantly. I believe the Fed does charge some sort of nominal fee for this (and for debit and credit card processing, if I’m not mistaken; at least that is on the drawing board as a proposed expansion in their power, in my understanding). To expand on that last point, the Fed, by design, does not depend on ANY tax revenue. They are fully self funded through fees such as this. The point and purpose of the Fed has never been to make money for the institution itself, but for its member banks. Since there is functionally very little difference, the charade works.
Be that as it may, the Prime Rate is tied to the Federal Funds Rate. The Prime Rate, in turn, to the extent I can determine–and my research has been far from exhaustive, but I did hit the “usual suspects” in Google, including Wikipedia–is set 300 basis points (3%) above the targeted Federal Funds Rate, which matters for variable interest rate loans.
To get to the point, as I got to pondering just what was happening, it occurred to me that they can only “target” a rate by influencing the capitalization of the large banks in the system. As an example, there are perhaps ten large banks in New York that together own stock in their local Fed. Those banks provide substantially all the members of the Board of Governors, and for all intents and purposes those banks ARE the Fed. There is no provision against collusion and favoritism since 1) the Fed is almost entirely unregulated, and beyond ANY direct control of Congress or the People; and 2) since collusion and favoritism were THE POINT of setting the thing up to begin with.
Given this, what has to be happening is that as demands for money exceed the money in the proverbial vaults of the big banks on Wall Street, the Fed simply performs open market operations to provide the needed capitalization. Phrased another way, let us say JPMorgan Chase, certainly one of the members, is running short on cash for loans. They make a call to their buddy across the street, and ask for some money. The big ones, in the middle, presumably have a more or less revolving line of credit. The actual decisions seem to be made in Washington, by what I think is called the Open Market Committee, but many of these decisions are no doubt pro forma, where only a few billion are concerned.
Anyway, the money is created. As I described in my piece on Money Creation, the Fed writes a check, say for some bonds issued by JPMorgan Chase, and the money is now in their accounts.
This is the only way they can assure that sufficient liquidity is maintained so as to hit their targeted rate. That has to be how it works, and if someone wants to object, shoot me an email. They only have three tools for monetary policy–besides the court of public opinion and thus professional investor opinion: the Discount Window, Reserve Requirements, and Open Market Operations.
By design, the Discount Window is always above the targeted Federal Funds Rate, so it is irrelevent. For all intents and purposes, it is an irrelevant tool, even though in the past it was much more important. The Fed stated on their website somewhere that that decision was made since some members were complaining that doing to the Discount Window implied undercapitalization and thus financial weakness. Yet, the same objection applies to the Federal Funds Rate, which solves the same problem.
Likewise the Reserve Requirement has historically been unimportant, since they never change it. It has been 10% forever, it seems. Practically, I’m not sure most banks even keep that much, though. I suspect they simply loan out everything they have (or can), then “fix” any shortfalls nightly with loans from other banks. The interest rate right now is right around 0%, which is an attractive number.
Interestingly, though, the Federal Reserve–in joint extragovernmental negotiations with other central banks–has recently announced a long term decision to require all banks to have higher reserve requirements. This will have a deflationary effect.
Particularly since our current Fed Chairman, Ben Bernanke, argued convincingly in 2004 that one of the causes of the Great Depression was inflationary policy followed by deflationary policy, this is interesting. Obviously, details matter, but one wonders if the same rough template is not there.
Be that as it may, that leads us to Open Market Operations as the only conceivably relevant tool. What does this mean? That if the loan business is slow, then the Fed isn’t doing much. But if banks are actually making loans, then what the Fed’s job is is to “top off” the funds of the already superrich, superpowerful transnational banks as needed. This is unfair, since it benefits those within the system (a non-free market system, since it has a charter from Congress not that unlike the charters handed corporations like the British East India Company), and by extension, by not handing out the same benefits to all, works to the long term detriment of everyone else.
I have been opposed to the “audit the Fed” idea in the past–in my view, we simply need to do away with it–but as I ponder the sheer extent of what we don’t know about what they do–what sort of buddy-buddy deals they cut with the movers and shakers who are plugged in to their world–I think that might be a good start.
How much money do they move out of the country? Who do they give it to? Are we capitalizing JPMorgan Chase to make loans to other countries? Why couldn’t the Fed buy $10 billion in bonds from them, after which JPMorgan Chase goes to developing nations throughout the world, and loans that money out? To be clear, these are not tax dollars. We are not on the hook for them, but assuming JPMorgan Chase turns a profit on them, they are that much more powerful domestically, in all the ways that unimaginable wealth can generate.
Once you grasp that there is NO LIMIT to what the Fed can do, very little reporting on what has been done, and NO REGULATION on any of it, you begin to realize what a profoundly anti-democratic, anti-Liberal institution it is.